[Jun 21, 2024] Latest Questions HPE7-A01 Guide to Prepare Free Practice Tests
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The Aruba Certified Campus Access Professional Exam certification exam comprises 60 multiple-choice questions, and the duration of the exam is 1.5 hours. HPE7-A01 exam covers topics such as RF design, wireless LAN planning, and site survey, WLAN authentication and encryption, network management and monitoring, and troubleshooting WLAN issues. HPE7-A01 exam questions are designed to test your understanding of wireless LAN technologies and your ability to design and implement Aruba solutions that meet customer requirements.
HP HPE7-A01, also known as the Aruba Certified Campus Access Professional (ACCP) exam, is a certification program designed to validate the knowledge and skills of networking professionals in deploying and managing wireless networks within enterprise environments. HPE7-A01 exam covers a wide range of topics, including access point deployment, network design, configuration, and troubleshooting, among others.
NEW QUESTION # 72
What are the requirements to ensure that WMM is working effectively'? (Select two)
- A. The AP needs to be connected via a tagged VLAN to the wired port
- B. The Client must be Wi-Fi CERTIFIED for WMM and configured for WMM marking.
- C. All APs need to be from the AP-5xx series and AP-6xx series which are Wi-Fi CERTIFIED 6.
- D. The APs and the controller are Wi-Fi CERTIFIED for WMM which is enabled
- E. The Aruba AOS10 APs installed have to be converted to controlled mode
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
These are the correct requirements to ensure that WMM (Wi-Fi Multimedia) is working effectively. WMM is a standard that provides quality of service (QoS) for wireless networks by prioritizing traffic into four categories: voice, video, best effort, and background. To use WMM, both the APs and the controller must be Wi-Fi CERTIFIED for WMM, which means they have passed interoperability tests and comply with the standard. WMM must also be enabled on the APs and the controller, which is usually the default setting. The client device must also be Wi-Fi CERTIFIED for WMM and configured for WMM marking, which means it can tag its traffic with the appropriate priority level based on the application type. The other options are incorrect because they are either not related to WMM or not required for WMM to work. Reference: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ArubaOS_86_Web_Help/Content/arubaos-solutions/wlan-qos/wmm.htm https://www.wi-fi.org/discover-wi-fi/wi-fi-certified-wmm
NEW QUESTION # 73
On AOS10 Gateways, which device persona is only available when configuring a Gateway-only group'?
- A. Edge
- B. Mobility
- C. Branch
- D. VPN Concentrator
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
VPN Concentrator is the device persona that is only available when configuring a Gateway-only group on AOS10 Gateways. A device persona defines the role and functionality of a Gateway in a network. A Gateway-only group is a group that contains only Gateways and no APs. A VPN Concentrator persona enables a Gateway to terminate VPN tunnels from remote APs or clients and provide secure access to corporate resources. The other options are incorrect because they are either not device personas or not exclusive to Gateway-only groups. References:
https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ArubaOS_86_Web_Help/Content/arubaos-solutions/gateways/gatewa
https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ArubaOS_86_Web_Help/Content/arubaos-solutions/gateways/vpn-co
NEW QUESTION # 74
You are doing tests in your lab and with the following equipment specifications
* AP1 has a radio that generates a 10 dBm signal
* AP2 has a radio that generates a 11 dBm signal
* AP1 has an antenna with a gain of 9 dBi
* AP2 has an antenna with a gain of 12 dBi.
* The antenna cable for AP1 has a 2 dB loss
* The antenna cable for AP2 has a 3 dB loss
What would be the calculated Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP) for APT?
- A. 26 dBm
- B. -12 dBm
- C. 30 dBm
- D. 17 dBm
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The calculated Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP) for AP1 is 30 dBm. EIRP is the product of the transmitter power (in dBm) and the antenna gain (in dBi) minus the cable loss (in dB). For AP1, EIRP = 10 dBm + 9 dBi - 2 dB = 17 dBm. For AP2, EIRP = 11 dBm + 12 dBi - 3 dB = 20 dBm. References:
https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ArubaOS_86_Web_Help/Content/arubaos-solutions/wlan-rf/rf-fundam
https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ArubaOS_86_Web_Help/Content/arubaos-solutions/wlan-rf/eirp.htm
NEW QUESTION # 75
Which statements regarding 0SPFv2 route redistribution are true for Aruba OS CX switches? (Select two.)
- A. The "redistribute ospf" command will redistribute routes from all OSPF V2 and V3 processes
- B. The "redistribute static route-map connected-routes" command will redistribute all static routes without a matching deny in the route map "connected-routes".
- C. The "redistribute static route-map connected-routes" command will redistribute all static routes with a matching permit in the route map "connected-routes-
- D. The "redistribute connected" command will redistribute all connected routes for the switch except local loopback addresses.
- E. The "redistribute connected" command will redistribute all connected routes for the switch including local loopback addresses
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Explanation
These are two correct statements regarding OSPFv2 route redistribution for Aruba OS CX switches. Route redistribution is a process that allows routes from one routing protocol or source to be injected into another routing protocol or destination. OSPFv2 is a link-state routing protocol that supports route redistribution from various sources, such as connected, static, BGP, etc. The "redistribute connected" command will redistribute all connected routes for the switch, including local loopback addresses, into OSPFv2. The "redistribute static route-map connected-routes" command will redistribute all static routes that have a matching permit statement in the route map named "connected-routes" into OSPFv2. The other statements are incorrect because they either do not reflect the correct behavior of route redistribution commands or do not exist as valid commands.
References: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX/10.04/HTML/5200-6728/bk01-ch02.html
https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX/10.04/HTML/5200-6728/bk01-ch03.html
NEW QUESTION # 76
You are building a configuration in Central that will be used for a standardized network design for small sites for your company, you want to use GUI configuration for gateways and Aps, while template configuration for switches. You need to align with Aruba best practices.
Which set of actions will satisfy these requirements?
- A. Create one group in Central for switches and a second group for APs and gateways. Create a unique site for each location, and assign devices to the appropriate site.
- B. Create a single group in Central. Create a unique site for each type of device, and assign devices to the appropriate site.
- C. Create one group in Central for switches a second group for APs. and a third group for gateways Create a unique site for each location, and assign devices to the appropriate site.
- D. Create a single group in Central. Create a unique site for each location, and assign devices to the appropriate site.
Answer: D
Explanation:
This is because option C shows how to create a single group in Central with different configuration methods defined for each device type. For example, you can create a group with the name Group1, and within this group, you can enable template-based configuration method for switches and UI-based configuration method for Instant APs and Gateways. Aruba Central identifies both these groups under a single name (Group1). If a device type in the group is marked for template-based configuration method, the group name is prefixed with TG (TG Group1). You can use Group1 as the group ID for workflows such as user management, monitoring, reports, and audit trail2.
https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/central/latest/content/nms/groups/abt-groups.htm 2: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/central/latest/content/nms/groups/groups.htm
NEW QUESTION # 77
What is one advantage of using OCSP vs CRLs for certificate validation?
- A. higher availability for certificate validation
- B. less complex to implement
- C. supports longer certificate validity periods
- D. reduces latency between the time a certificate is revoked and validation reflects this status
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
OCSP is a protocol that allows clients to query the CA or a trusted responder for the status of a specific certificate. OCSP requests and responses are smaller and faster than CRLs, and they can provide real-time information about the revocation status of a certificate12. CRLs are lists of all revoked certificates that are downloaded from the CA. CRLs can present issues, as they can become outdated and have to be downloaded frequently13. Therefore, OCSP reduces latency between the time a certificate is revoked and validation reflects this status. References: 1 https://sectigostore.com/blog/ocsp-vs-crl-whats-the-difference/ 2
https://www.keyfactor.com/blog/what-is-a-certificate-revocation-list-crl-vs-ocsp/ 3
https://www.fortinet.com/resources/cyberglossary/ocsp
NEW QUESTION # 78
A new network design is being considered to minimize client latency in a high-density environment. The design needs to do this by eliminating contention overhead by dedicating subcarriers to clients.
Which technology is the best match for this use case?
- A. MU-MIMO
- B. Channel Bonding
- C. QWMM
- D. OFDMA
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
OFDMA (Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiple Access) is a technology that can minimize client latency in a high-density environment by eliminating contention overhead by dedicating subcarriers to clients. OFDMA allows multiple clients to transmit simultaneously on different subcarriers within the same channel, reducing contention and increasing efficiency. MU-MIMO (Multi-User Multiple Input Multiple Output) is a technology that allows multiple clients to transmit simultaneously on different spatial streams within the same channel, but it does not eliminate contention overhead. QWMM (Quality of Service Wireless Multimedia) is a technology that prioritizes traffic based on four access categories, but it does not eliminate contention overhead. Channel Bonding is a technology that combines two adjacent channels into one wider channel, increasing bandwidth but not eliminating contention overhead. References:
https://www.arubanetworks.com/assets/ds/DS_AP510Series.pdf
https://www.arubanetworks.com/assets/wp/WP_WiFi6.pdf
NEW QUESTION # 79
What steps are part of the Key Management workflow when a wireless device is roaming from AP1 to AP2?
(Select two.)
- A. A client associates and authenticates with the AP2 after roaming from AP1
- B. The Key Management service receives a list of all AP1 s neighbors from AirMatch.
- C. The Key Management service then generates R1 keys for AP2's neighbors.
- D. The Key Management service receives from AirMatch a list of all AP2's neighbors
- E. AP1 will cache the client's information and send it to the Key Management service
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Explanation
Key Management is a service that runs on Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs) or Mobility Master (MM) to optimize roaming performance for wireless clients. Key Management works with AirMatch, a service that optimizes radio resource management for Aruba APs, to pre-generate and distribute R1 keys for neighboring APs before a client roams. When a wireless device is roaming from AP1 to AP2, the following steps are part of the Key Management workflow3:
* The client associates and authenticates with AP1 using 802.1X or PSK methods.
* The Key Management service caches the client's information and generates an R0 key for the client.
* The Key Management service receives a list of all AP1's neighbors from AirMatch.
* The Key Management service then generates R1 keys for AP1's neighbors using the R0 key and sends them to the corresponding APs.
* When the client roams to AP2, one of AP1's neighbors, it performs an 802.11r fast transition using the pre-generated R1 key without needing to re-authenticate.
References: 3 https://www.arubanetworks.com/assets/tg/TB_KeyManagement.pdf
NEW QUESTION # 80
Refer to the image.
Your customer is complaining of weak Wi-Fi coverage in their office. They mention that the office on the other side of the hall has much better signal What is the likely cause of this issue7
- A. The AP is using a directional antenna.
- B. The AP is a remote access point.
- C. The AP is an outdoor access point.
- D. The AP is configured in Mesh mode
Answer: A
Explanation:
The likely cause of the issue of weak Wi-Fi coverage in the office is that the AP is using a directional antenna. A directional antenna is an antenna that radiates or receives radio waves more strongly in one or more directions, creating a focused beam of signal. A directional antenna can provide better coverage and performance for a specific area, but it can also create dead zones or weak spots for other areas. The other options are incorrect because they either do not affect the Wi-Fi coverage or do not match the scenario. Reference: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ArubaOS_86_Web_Help/Content/arubaos-solutions/wlan-rf/rf-fundamentals.htm https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ArubaOS_86_Web_Help/Content/arubaos-solutions/wlan-rf/antennas.htm
NEW QUESTION # 81
What steps are part of the Key Management workflow when a wireless device is roaming from AP1 to AP2? (Select two.)
- A. A client associates and authenticates with the AP2 after roaming from AP1
- B. The Key Management service then generates R1 keys for AP2's neighbors.
- C. AP1 will cache the client's information and send it to the Key Management service
- D. The Key Management service receives from AirMatch a list of all AP2's neighbors
- E. The Key Management service receives a list of all AP1 s neighbors from AirMatch.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
The correct steps that are part of the Key Management workflow when a wireless device is roaming from AP1 to AP2 are A and D.
A) AP1 will cache the client's information and send it to the Key Management service. This is true because when a client associates and authenticates with AP1, AP1 will generate a pairwise master key (PMK) for the client and store it in its cache. AP1 will also send the PMK and other client information, such as MAC address, VLAN, and SSID, to the Key Management service, which is a centralized service that runs on Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs) or Mobility Master (MM) devices1. The Key Management service will use this information to facilitate fast roaming for the client.
D) The Key Management service then generates R1 keys for AP2's neighbors. This is true because when the Key Management service receives the client information from AP1, it will use the PMK to derive R0 and R1 keys for the client. R0 keys are used to generate R1 keys, which are used to generate pairwise transient keys (PTKs) for encryption. The Key Management service will distribute the R1 keys to AP2 and its neighboring APs, which are determined by AirMatch based on RF proximity2. This way, when the client roams to AP2 or any of its neighbors, it can skip the 802.1X authentication and use the R1 key to quickly generate a PTK with the new AP3.
B) The Key Management service receives from AirMatch a list of all AP2's neighbors. This is false because the Key Management service does not receive this information from AirMatch directly. AirMatch is a feature that runs on MCs or MM devices and optimizes the RF performance of Aruba devices by using machine learning algorithms. AirMatch periodically sends neighbor reports to all APs, which contain information about their nearby APs based on signal strength and interference. The APs then send these reports to the Key Management service, which uses them to determine which APs should receive R1 keys for a given client2.
C) The Key Management service receives a list of all AP1 s neighbors from AirMatch. This is false for the same reason as B. The Key Management service does not receive this information from AirMatch directly, but from the APs that send their neighbor reports.
E) A client associates and authenticates with the AP2 after roaming from AP1. This is false because a client does not need to authenticate with AP2 after roaming from AP1 if it has already authenticated with AP1 and received R1 keys from the Key Management service. The client only needs to associate with AP2 and perform a four-way handshake using the R1 key to generate a PTK for encryption3. This is called fast roaming or 802.11r roaming, and it reduces the latency and disruption caused by full authentication.
1: ArubaOS 8.7 User Guide 2: ArubaOS 8.7 User Guide 3: ArubaOS 8.7 User Guide : ArubaOS 8.7 User Guide
NEW QUESTION # 82
Which statements are true regarding a VXLAN implementation on Aruba Switches? (Select two.)
- A. VTEPs encapsulate and decapsulate VXLAN traffic
- B. All Aruba CX switches support VXLAN.
- C. They are only available for datacenter switches (CX 8k, 9k,10k)
- D. MTU size must be increased beyond the default
- E. VNIs encapsulate and decapsulate VXLAN traffic
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Option A: MTU size must be increased beyond the default
This is because option A shows how to configure the MTU size for VXLAN tunnels on Aruba switches using the interface command and the vxlan command. The MTU size must be increased beyond the default value of 1500 bytes to accommodate the VXLAN header and payload2.
Therefore, option A is true regarding a VXLAN implementation on Aruba switches.
Option B: VNIs encapsulate and decapsulate VXLAN traffic
This is also true regarding a VXLAN implementation on Aruba switches. VNIs are used to encapsulate and decapsulate VXLAN traffic between two devices, such as a switch and a server. VNIs are also used to map VXLAN tunnels to overlay networks3.
Therefore, option B is also true regarding a VXLAN implementation on Aruba switches.
VXLAN is a Layer 2 encapsulation technology that substitutes the usage of VLAN numbers to label Ethernet broadcast domains with VXLAN numbers. VXLAN supports 224 Ethernet broadcast domains or VXLAN numbers. A VXLAN number ID is referred to as VNI. There is a one-to-one relationship between an Ethernet broadcast domain and a VNI. A single Ethernet broadcast domain can't have more than one VNI.
NEW QUESTION # 83
Your Director of Security asks you to assign AOS-CX switch management roles to new employees based on their specific job requirements. After the configuration was complete, it was noted that a user assigned with the auditors role did not have the appropriate level of access on the switch.
The user was not allowed to perform firmware upgrades and a privilege level of 15 was not assigned to their role. Which default management role should have been assigned for the user?
- A. sysops
- B. config
- C. sysadmin
- D. administrators
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is B. sysops.
The sysops user role is a predefined role that allows users to perform system operations on the switch, such as backup, restore, upgrade, or reboot. The sysops user role also has access to the PUT and POST methods for REST API, which can be used to modify the switch configuration. The sysops user role has a privilege level of
15, which is the highest level of access on the switch1.
The other options are incorrect because:
A: sysadmin: The sysadmin user role is a predefined role that allows users to view and modify the switch configuration using the CLI or the Web UI. The sysadmin user role does not have access to the REST API methods, and cannot perform firmware upgrades1.
C: administrators: The administrators user role is a predefined role that has full access to all switch configuration information and all REST API methods. This role is more than what the Director of Security requires1.
D: config: The config user role is a predefined role that allows users to view and modify the switch configuration using the CLI or the Web UI. The config user role does not have access to the REST API methods, and cannot perform firmware upgrades1.
NEW QUESTION # 84
Two AOS-CX switches are configured with VSX at the the Access-Aggregation layer where servers attach to them An SVI interface is configured for VLAN 10 and serves as the default gateway for VLAN 10. The ISL link between the switches fails, but the keepalive interface functions. Active gateway has been configured on the VSX switches.
What is correct about access from the servers to the Core? (Select two.)
- A. Server 1 can access the core layer via the keepalrve link
- B. Server 2 can access the core layer via the keepalive link
- C. Server 1 and Server 2 can communicate with each other via the core layer
- D. Server 1 can access the core layer on only one uplink
- E. Server 1 can access the core layer via both uplinks
- F. Server 2 cannot access the core layer.
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Explanation
These are the correct statements about access from the servers to the Core when the ISL link between the switches fails, but the keepalive interface functions. Server 1 can access the core layer via both uplinks because it is connected to VSX-A, which is still active for VLAN 10. Server 2 can also access the core layer via its uplink to VSX-B, which is still active for VLAN 10 because of Active Gateway feature. Server 1 and Server 2 can communicate with each other via the core layer because they are in the same VLAN and subnet, and their traffic can be routed through the core switches. The other statements are incorrect because they either describe scenarios that are not possible or not relevant to the question. References:
https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX/10.04/HTML/5200-6728/bk01-
NEW QUESTION # 85
When configuring UBT on a switch what will happen when a gateway role is not specified?
- A. The gateway will assign a default role to the client
- B. The gateway will send back the deny role to the client.
- C. The switch will assign the default deny role to the client.
- D. The switch will put the client on the access VLAN
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the Aruba Documentation Portal1, user-based tunneling (UBT) is a feature that uses GRE to tunnel ingress traffic on a switch interface to a gateway for further processing. UBT enables a switch to provide a centralized security policy, using per-user authentication and access control to ensure consistent access and permissions.
Option A: The switch will put the client on the access VLAN
This is because option A shows how UBT works on an Aruba switch. When a device connects to the network, it is authenticated using either MAC Authentication or 802.1X and triggers an enforcement policy from ClearPass, which contains an enforcement profile with a user role configuration. The user role can be assigned locally on the switch or on ClearPass as part of an enforcement profile. The user role determines the VLAN that the device belongs to and the access policies that apply to it23.
Therefore, option A is correct.
1: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/central/latest/content/nms/aos-cx/cfg/conf-cx-ubt.htm 2:
https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX/10.06/HTML/5200-7696/GUID-581D2976-694B-46C7-849
https://community.arubanetworks.com/viewdocument/?DocumentKey=c740df4e-3e26-4cc5-9126-355a18709c4
NEW QUESTION # 86
What are two advantages of splitting a larger OSPF area into a number of smaller areas? (Select two )
- A. It reduces the total number of LSAs
- B. it simplifies the configuration.
- C. It increases stability
- D. It extends the LSDB
- E. It reduces processing overhead.
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Explanation
Splitting a larger OSPF area into a number of smaller areas has several advantages for network scalability and performance. Some of these advantages are:
* It increases stability by limiting the impact of topology changes within an area. When a link or router fails in an area, only routers within that area need to run the SPF algorithm and update their routing tables. Routers in other areas are not affected by the change and do not need to recalculate their routes.
* It reduces processing overhead by reducing the size and frequency of link-state advertisements (LSAs).
LSAs are packets that contain information about the network topology and are flooded within an area.
By dividing a network into smaller areas, each area has fewer LSAs to generate, store, and process,
* which saves CPU and memory resources on routers.
* It reduces bandwidth consumption by reducing the amount of routing information exchanged between areas. Routers that connect different areas, called area border routers (ABRs), summarize the routing information from one area into a single LSA and advertise it to another area. This reduces the number of LSAs that need to be transmitted across area boundaries and saves network bandwidth.
References: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/7039-1.html
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13703-8.html
NEW QUESTION # 87
Your customer currently has Iwo (2) 5406 modular switches with MSTP configured as their core switches. You are proposing a new solution. What would you explain regarding the Aruba CX VSX switch pair when the Primary VSX node is replaced and the system MAC is replaced?
- A. Configure vMAC on the Primary VSX node under VSX to retain MAC after hardware replacement.
- B. During the initial VSX configuration, the system-mac is assigned with a fixed MAC based on VSX ID.
- C. VSX will select the MAC address from a node that is a higher ID.
- D. VSX will select the MAC address from a node that is the lower ID.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The system-mac command is used to configure a fixed MAC address for the VSX system. This MAC address is used as the source MAC address for all routed traffic from the VSX node. The system-mac command is highly recommended for preventing traffic disruptions when the primary VSX switch restores after the secondary VSX switch, such as during a primary switch hardware replacement or a power outage2. During the initial VSX configuration, the system-mac is assigned with a fixed MAC based on VSX ID. The system-mac command can be used to change this default MAC address if needed2. Therefore, answer D is correct.
NEW QUESTION # 88
You are configuring Policy Based Routing (PBR) for a subnet that will be used to test a new default route for your network Traffic originating from 10.2.250.0/24 should use a new default route to 10.1.1.253. Other non-default routes for this subnet should not be affected by this change.
What are two parts of the solution for these requirements? (Select two.)
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
- E.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Explanation
These are the correct parts of the solution for the requirements of configuring Policy Based Routing (PBR) for a subnet that will be used to test a new default route for your network. Option A defines a PBR policy named test-default-route with a rule named new-default-route that matches traffic from source IP address
10.2.250.0/24 and sets the next hop IP address to 10.1.1.253. Option E applies the PBR policy to VLAN 10 interface, which is the subnet that needs to use the new default route. The other options are incorrect because they either do not match the correct traffic or do not set the correct next hop. References:
https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX/10.04/HTML/5200-6728/bk01-ch02.html
https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX/10.04/HTML/5200-6728/bk01-ch03.html
NEW QUESTION # 89
What is the order of operations tor Key Management service for a wireless client roaming from AP1 to AP2?
Answer:
Explanation:
1 - Client Associates and authenticates to AP1
2 - Cache the client's information
3 - Generate Parawise Master Key keys for AP1's neighbors
4 - Get AP1 neighbour AP list
5 - Share Parawise Master Key along with VLAN and User Role to target APs
NEW QUESTION # 90
List the WPA 4-Way Handshake functions in the correct order.
Answer:
Explanation:
* Proves knowledge of the PMK
* Exchanges messages for generating PTK
* Distributes an encrypted GTK to the client
* Sets first initialization vector (IV)
NEW QUESTION # 91
You are doing tests in your lab and with the following equipment specifications
* AP1 has a radio that generates a 10 dBm signal
* AP2 has a radio that generates a 11 dBm signal
* AP1 has an antenna with a gain of 9 dBi
* AP2 has an antenna with a gain of 12 dBi.
* The antenna cable for AP1 has a 2 dB loss
* The antenna cable for AP2 has a 3 dB loss
What would be the calculated Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP) for APT?
- A. 26 dBm
- B. -12 dBm
- C. 17 dBm
- D. 30 dBm
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The calculated Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP) for AP1 is 17 dBm.
EIRP is the measured radiated power of an antenna in a specific direction. It is equal to the input power to the antenna multiplied by the gain of the antenna. It can also take into account the losses in transmission line, connectors, and other components. The formula for EIRP is:
EIRP = P + G - L
where P is the output power of the radio, G is the gain of the antenna, and L is the loss of the cable and connectors.
For AP1, we have:
P = 10 dBm G = 9 dBi L = 2 dB
Therefore,
EIRP = 10 + 9 - 2 EIRP = 17 dBm
NEW QUESTION # 92
The administrator notices that wired guest users that have exceeded their bandwidth limit are not being disconnected Access Tracker in ClearPass indicates a disconnect CoA message is being sent to the AOS-CX switch.
An administrator has performed the following configuration
What is the most likely cause of this issue?
- A. The SSL certificate for CPPM has not been added as a trust point on the switch
- B. There is a time difference between the switch and the ClearPass Policy Manager
- C. Change of Authorization has not been globally enabled on the switch
- D. There is a mismatch between the RADIUS secret on the switch and CPPM.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Change of Authorization (CoA) is a feature that allows ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) to send messages to network devices such as switches to change the authorization state of a user session. CoA requires that both CPPM and the network device support this feature and have it enabled. For AOS-CX switches, CoA must be globally enabled using the command radius-server coa enable. If CoA is not enabled on the switch, the disconnect CoA message from CPPM will be ignored and the user session will not be terminated. References:
https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ClearPass/6.7/PolicyManager/index.htm#CPPM_UserGuide/Admin/C
https://techhub.hpe.com/eginfolib/Aruba/OS-CX_10.04/5200-6692/GUID-9B8F6E8F-9C7A-4F0D-AE7B-9D8E
NEW QUESTION # 93
Which component is used by the Aruba Network Analytics Engine (NAE)?
- A. Ruby-based scripts
- B. JSON-based scripts
- C. Lisp-based agents
- D. Current State Database
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
JSON-based scripts are the components used by the Aruba Network Analytics Engine (NAE). NAE is a feature that provides network monitoring and troubleshooting capabilities using JSON-based scripts called agents. Agents collect data from various sources, such as switch CLI commands, SNMP queries, REST APIs, etc., and analyze them using predefined rules and thresholds. Agents can also generate alerts, notifications, actions, or reports based on the analysis results. References:
https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX_10_08/UG/bk01-ch07.html
https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX_10_08/UG/bk01-ch08.html
NEW QUESTION # 94
your customer has asked you to assign a switch management role for a new user The customer requires the user role to View switch configuration information and have access to the PUT and POST meth0ds for REST API.
Which default AOS-CX user role meets these requirements?
- A. sysops
- B. helpdesk
- C. auditors
- D. administrators
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is C. sysops.
The sysops user role is a predefined role that allows users to view switch configuration information and have access to the PUT and POST methods for REST API. The sysops user role can also use the PATCH and DELETE methods for REST API, but not for all resources. The sysops user role is suitable for users who need to perform system operations on the switch, such as backup, restore, upgrade, or reboot.
According to the AOS-CX REST API Reference basics1, one of the predefined user roles is:
sysops: Users with this role can view switch configuration information and have access to the PUT and POST methods for REST API. They can also use the PATCH and DELETE methods for REST API, but not for all resources. Users with this role can perform system operations on the switch, such as backup, restore, upgrade, or reboot.
The other options are incorrect because:
A: administrators: Users with this role have full access to all switch configuration information and all REST API methods. This role is more than what the customer requires.
B: auditors: Users with this role can only view switch configuration information and have access to the GET method for REST API. They cannot use the PUT and POST methods for REST API.
D: helpdesk: Users with this role can view switch configuration information and have access to the GET method for REST API. They can also use the PATCH method for REST API, but only for a limited set of resources. They cannot use the PUT and POST methods for REST API.
NEW QUESTION # 95
......
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