[Jan 10, 2022] 8008 PDF Questions and Testing Engine With 359 Questions
Updated Exam Engine for 8008 Exam Free Demo & 365 Day Updates
NEW QUESTION 19
Under the KMV Moody's approach to calculating expecting default frequencies (EDF), firms' default on obligations is likely when:
- A. asset values reach a level below short term debt
- B. expected asset values one year hence are below total liabilities
- C. asset values reach a level between short term debt and total liabilities
- D. asset values reach a level below total liabilities
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
An observed fact that the KMV approach relies upon is that firms do not default when their liabilities exceed assets, but when asset values are somewhere between short term liabilities and the total liabilities. In fact, the
'default point' in the KMV methodology is defined as the short term debt plus half of the long term debt. The difference between expected value of the assets in one year and this 'default point', when expressed in terms of standard deviation of the asset values, is called the 'distance-to-default'.
Therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer. The other choices are incorrect.
NEW QUESTION 20
If the 1-day VaR of a portfolio is $25m, what is the 10-day VaR for the portfolio?
- A. $7.906m
$79.06m - B. $250m
- C. Cannot be determined without the confidence level being specified
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The 10-day VaR is = $25m x SQRT(10) = $79.06m. Choice 'b' is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION 21
Conditional VaR refers to:
- A. expected average losses above a given VaR estimate
- B. the value at risk estimate for non-normal distributions
- C. expected average losses conditional on the VaR estimates not being exceeded
- D. value at risk when certain conditions are satisfied
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Conditional VaR is the expected average losses above a given percentile, or a given VaR estimate at the given level of confidence. For example, if we know what the 99% VaR is, we still do not know what we can expect our losses to be if this VaR loss estimate were to be exceeded. Conditional VaR provides the answer to this question by providing an estimate of the average or expected losses beyond 99% mark. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer and the other choices are mostly non-sensical.
NEW QUESTION 22
Which of the following statements are true:
I. Stress testing, if exhaustive, can replace traditional risk management tools such as value-at-risk (VaR) II. Stress tests can be particularly useful in identifying risks with new products III. Stress testing is distinct from a bank's ICAAP carried out periodically IV. Stress testing is a powerful communication tool that can convey risks to decisionmakers in an organization
- A. II and IV
- B. All of the above
- C. I, II and III
- D. I and III
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Stress testing provides an independent and complementary perspective to other risk management tools such as value-at-risk and economic capital. Both are tools that serve similar purposes but are not interchangeable.
Stress testing, no matter how exhaustively done, can not replace other tools such as those based on analytical or historical models. It can provide a useful sense check to validate models and assumptions, but is not a replacement for traditional techniques. Therefore statement I is false.
Stress testing can certainly help identify risks with new products for which historical data may be limited, and analytical models may be based upon many unproven assumptions. It can help challenge the risk characteristics of new products where stress situations have not been observed in the past. Therefore statement II is correct.
ICAAP stands for the 'internal capital adequacy assessment process' performed by a bank (remember the acronym and its expansion). Stress testing is an integral part of a firm's ICAAP, and not distinct. It is one of the elements of the internal process. Therefore statement III is false.
Statement IV is correct as stress testing is indeed a powerful tool that can communicate risks throughout the organization as the stress scenarios are easier to comprehend than arcane statistical models. They are also easier to explain to regulators, and are a powerful communication tool.
Thus Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION 23
Which of the following are ordered correctly in the order of debt seniority in a bankruptcy situation?
I. Equity, Subordinate debt, Senior debt
II. Senior debt, Preferred stock, Equity
III. Secured debt, Accounts payable, Preferred stock
IV. Secured debt, DIP financing, Equity
- A. I
- B. I and IV
- C. II, III and IV
- D. II and III
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
In a bankruptcy, equity ranks last. Preferred equity is one level above equity. Senior debt gets paid out first compared to junior debt, and secured debt is paid out first to the extent of the asset securing it (after which it counts as unsecured debt). Accounts payable and other short term liabilities are treated like unsecured creditors. Debtor-in-possession (DIP) financing ranks higher than any other asset as it is financing secured after the bankruptcy to continue the business.
Based on the above, statement I does not represent a correct ordering of seniority as equity is paid last.
Similarly, DIP financing receives higher priority than even secured debt, and therefore statement IV is incorrect. Therefore the only correct statements are II and III and Choice 'a' is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION 24
Under the standardized approach to determining operational risk capital, operations risk capital is equal to:
- A. a fixed percentage of the latest gross income of the bank
- B. a fixed percentage (different for each business line) of the gross income of the eight specified business lines, averaged over three years
- C. a varying percentage, determined by the national regulator, of the gross revenue of each of the bank's business lines
- D. 15% of the average gross income (considering only the positive years) of the past three years
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Choice 'd' is the correct answer, as laid down in the Basel II document. The other choices are incorrect.
NEW QUESTION 25
The risk that a counterparty fails to deliver its obligation upon settlement while having received the leg owed to it is called:
- A. Credit risk
- B. Pre-settlement risk
- C. Replacement risk
- D. Settlement risk
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Choice 'd' is the correct answer. Settlement risk, as the name suggests, arises upon settlement when one of the parties delivers its obligation under the transaction and the other does not. Consider a EUR/USD FX forward contract maturing in a month. At maturity, one of the parties will deliver EURs and the other USDs. If one party fails to deliver, then it constitutes a very large risk to the other party. This risk is much larger than pre-settlement risk, because the amount at risk is the entire notional and not just the replacement value. Of course, settlement risk exists for a very short period of time, no more than a number or hours or a day.
There is no such thing as 'replacement risk', and credit risk is a larger category of which settlement risks is one component. Settlement risk is the most appropriate answer.
NEW QUESTION 26
Under the standardized approach to calculating operational risk capital under Basel II, negative regulatory capital charges for any of the business units:
- A. Should be included after ignoring the negative sign
- B. Should be ignored completely
- C. Should be excluded from capital calculations
- D. Should be offset against positive capital charges from other business units
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
According to Basel II, in any given year, negative capital charges (resulting from negative gross income) in any business line may offset positive capital charges in other business lines without limit. Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION 27
The 10-day VaR of a diversified portfolio is $100m. What is the 20-day VaR of the same portfolio assuming the market shows a trend and the autocorrelation between consecutive periods is 0.2?
- A. 141.42
- B. 0
- C. 154.92
- D. 1
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The square root of time rule cannot be applied here because the returns across the periods are not independent.
(Recall that the square root of time rule requires returns to be iid, independent and identically distributed.) Here there is a 'autocorrelation' in play, which means one period's returns affect the returns of the other period.
VaR is merely a multiple of volatility, or standard deviation, using the factor for the desired confidence level.
VaR across time periods can be combined using the square root of time rule, in fact if returns were independent we could have easily calculated the VaR for the 20-day period as equal to $100m*SQRT(20/10) =
$141.4m
But in this case we need to account for the autocorrelation. We can do this akin to the way we combine the VaR of different assets that have a given correlation. Since we know that:
Variance (A + B) = Variance(A) + Variance(B) + 2*Correlation*StdDev(A)*StdDev(B).
The standard deviation, which the VaR is a multiple of, can be calculated by taking the square root of the variance.
Therefore the combined VaR over the two months will be equal to =SQRT( (100^2) + (100^2) +
2*0.2*100*100 )= $154.92m. All other answers are incorrect.
NEW QUESTION 28
If A and B be two debt securities, which of the following is true?
- A. The probability of simultaneous default of A and B is not dependent upon their default correlations, but on their marginal probabilities of default
- B. The probability of simultaneous default of A and B is greatest when their default correlation is +1
- C. The probability of simultaneous default of A and B is greatest when their default correlation is 0
- D. The probability of simultaneous default of A and B is greatest when their default correlation is negative
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
If the marginal probability of default of two securities A and B is P(A) and P(B), then the probability of both of them defaulting together is affected by the default correlation between them. Marginal probability of default means the probability of default of each security on a standalone basis, ie, the probability of default of one security without considering the other security.
The relationship that expresses the probability of joint default of the two is given by the following expression:
It is easy to see that in a situation where the Default Correlation of A & B = 0, ie, the defaults are independent, the combined probability of default is P(A)*P(B), exactly what we would intuitively expect. Also in the other extreme case where the default correlation is equal to 1 and P(A) = P(B) = p, ie the securities behave in an identical way, the expression resolves to just p, which is what we would expect.
From the above relationship, it is clear that the probability of joint default of A and B is the greatest when default correlation between the two is equal to 1, ie the securities behave in an identical way. Therefore Choice
'a' is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION 29
A Bank Holding Company (BHC) is invested in an investment bank and a retail bank. The BHC defaults for certain if either the investment bank or the retail bank defaults. However, the BHC can also default on its own without either the investment bank or the retail bank defaulting. The investment bank and the retail bank's defaults are independent of each other, with a probability of default of 0.05 each. The BHC's probability of default is 0.11.
What is the probability of default of both the BHC and the investment bank? What is the probability of the BHC's default provided both the investment bank and the retail bank survive?
- A. 0.05 and 0.0125
- B. 0.0475 and 0.10
- C. 0.11 and 0
- D. 0.08 and 0.0475
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Since the BHC always fails when the investment bank fails, the joint probability of default of the two is merely the probability of the investment bank failing, ie 0.05.
The probability of just the BHC failing, given that both the investment bank and the retail bank have survived will be equal to 0.11 - (0.05+0.05-0.05*0.05) = 0.0125. (The easiest way to understand this would be to consider a venn diagram, where the area under the largest circle is 0.11, and there are two intersecting circles inside this larger circle, each with an area of 0.05 and their intersection accounting for 0.05*0.05. We need to calculate the area outside of the two smaller circles, but within the larger circle representing the BHC).
Refer diagram below, please excuse the awful colors.
NEW QUESTION 30
Financial institutions need to take volatility clustering into account:
I. To avoid taking on an undesirable level of risk
II. To know the right level of capital they need to hold
III. To meet regulatory requirements
IV. To account for mean reversion in returns
- A. I, II and IV
- B. II, III and IV
- C. I & II
- D. I, II and III
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Volatility clustering leads to levels of current volatility that can be significantly different from long run averages. When volatility is running high, institutions need to shed risk, and when it is running low, they can afford to increase returns by taking on more risk for a given amount of capital. An institution's response to changes in volatility can be either to adjust risk, or capital, or both. Accounting for volatility clustering helps institutions manage their risk and capital and therefore statements I and II are correct.
Regulatory requirements do not require volatility clustering to be taken into account (at least not yet).
Therefore statement III is not correct, and neither is IV which is completely unrelated to volatility clustering.
NEW QUESTION 31
In setting confidence levels for VaR estimates for internal limit setting, it is generally desirable:
- A. that actual losses exceed the VaR estimates with some reasonably observable frequency that is neither too high nor too low
- B. that actual losses exceed the VaR estimates on only the rarest of occasions
- C. that actual losses never exceed the VaR estimates
- D. that actual losses very frequently exceed the VaR estimates
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
If the confidence levels for a VaR estimate are set too high, there may never be any exceedences, ie actual losses will never exceed VaR estimates. For limit setting, we want actual losses to exceed the VaR estimates enough number of times as during the year so that the limits are considered seriously. If the VaR estimate is exceeded too many times, or never, then it is unlikely to be considered seriously. Therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer.
The other answers are incorrect as they either require the VaR to be too high (ie zero or rare excess loss situations) or too low (ie there will be too many cases of excess loss situations to be taken seriously).
NEW QUESTION 32
Which of the following is not a possible early warning indicator in relation to the health of a counterparty?
- A. Negative publicity
- B. Falling stock price
- C. Credit rating downgrade
- D. A decline in the counterparty's corporate debt yield
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Negative publicity, a downgrade in the credit rating, a falling stock price are all pointers to potential credit problems, and the counterparty credit monitoring group of a bank should be using these as possible early indicators of an upcoming credit health problem. A decline in the yield of the debt issued by a counterparty means its spread is declining and the health of the credit is actually improving. Therefore a decline in the counterparty's corporate debt yield cannot be used as an indicator of potential credit problems.
Choice 'c' is therefore the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION 33
If the default hazard rate for a company is 10%, and the spread on its bonds over the risk free rate is 800 bps, what is the expected recovery rate?
- A. 40.00%
- B. 20.00%
- C. 8.00%
- D. 0.00%
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The recovery rate, the default hazard rate (also called the average default intensity) and the spread on debt are linked by the equation Hazard Rate = Spread/(1 - Recovery Rate). Therefore, the recovery rate implicit in the given data is = 1 - 8%/10% = 20%.
NEW QUESTION 34
When compared to a medium severity medium frequency risk, the operational risk capital requirement for a high severity very low frequency risk is likely to be:
- A. Lower
- B. Higher
- C. Zero
- D. Unaffected by differences in frequency or severity
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
High frequency and low severity risks, for example the risks of fraud losses for a credit card issuer, may have high expected losses, but low unexpected losses. In other words, we can generally expect these losses to stay within a small expected and known range. The capital requirement will be the worst case losses at a given confidence level less expected losses, and in such cases this can be expected to be low.
On the other hand, medium severity medium frequency risks, such as the risks of unexpected legal claims,
'fat-finger' trading errors, will have low expected losses but a high level of unexpected losses. Thus the capital requirement for such risks will be high.
It is also worthwhile mentioning high severity and low frequency risks - for example a rogue trader circumventing all controls and bringing the bank down, or a terrorist strike or natural disaster creating other losses - will probably have zero expected losses & high unexpected losses but only at very high levels of confidence. In other words, operational risk capital is unlikely to provide for such events and these would lie in the part of the tail that is not covered by most levels of confidence when calculating operational risk capital.
Note that risk capital is required for only unexpected losses as expected losses are to be borne by P&L reserves. Therefore the operational risk capital requirements for a low severity high frequency risk is likely to be low when compared to other risks that are lower frequency but higher severity.
Thus Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION 35
Economic capital under the Earnings Volatility approach is calculated as:
- A. Earnings under the worst case scenario at a given confidence level/Required rate of return for the firm
- B. Expected earnings/Required rate of return for the firm
- C. Expected earnings/Specific risk premium for the firm
- D. [Expected earnings less Earnings under the worst case scenario at a given confidence level]/Required rate of return for the firm
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The Earnings Volatility approach to calculating economic capital is a top down approach that considers economic capital as being the capital required to make for the worst case fall in earnings, and calculates EC as equal to the worst case decrease in earnings capitalized at the rate of return expected of the firm. The worst case decrease in earnings, or the earnings-at-risk can only be stated at a given confidence level, and is equal to the Expected Earnings less Earnings under the worst case scenario.
NEW QUESTION 36
Which of the following is true in relation to a Contingency Funding Plan (CFP)?
I. A CFP is like a disaster recovery plan to deal with a liquidity crisis II. A CFP should consider market stress conditions, but failures of payment systems are not relevant as they fall under the remit of operational risk III. Reputational damage may result if the market finds out that a firm has had to execute its CFP IV. Sources of emergency funding considered in the CFP should include the role of the central bank as the lender of last resort
- A. I and III
- B. IV
- C. II and IV
- D. I, II and III
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A CFP is indeed a disaster recovery plan to deal with a liquidity crisis. Therefore statement I is correct.
A CFP should consider market stress conditions, including wide scale failures of payment and settlement systems. Statement II is not correct.
It is true that reputational damage may result if a firm has to activate its CFP - therefore the plan should consider internal and external communications, the timing of information release and the groups within the firm who need to know about the implementation of the plan. Reputational damage can only make any existing liquidity problems worse. Statement III is correct.
Sources of emergency funding should not include funding from the central bank - unless as part of a regular lending facility. Its role as a lender of last resort can not be considered in a CFP. Statement IV is incorrect.
Therefore only statements I and III are correct.
NEW QUESTION 37
Which of the following statements are correct:
I. A training set is a set of data used to create a model, while a control set is a set of data is used to prove that the model actually works II. Cleansing, aggregating or ensuring data integrity is a task for the IT department, and is not a risk manager's responsibility III. Lack of information on the quality of underlying securities and assets was a major cause of the collapse in the CDO markets during the credit crisis that started in 2007 IV. The problem of lack of historical data can be addressed reasonably satisfactorily by using analytical approaches
- A. I and III
- B. All of the above
- C. II and IV
- D. I, III and IV
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Statement I is correct. Data is often divided into two sets - a 'training set' that is used to create and fine-tune the model while the 'control set' is used to prove that the model works on sample data. Back testing is then perfomed using actual data that becomes available over time, or may already be available as historical data.
Statement II is incorrect. A risk manager often spends a great deal of time in managing data, and ensuring that the data being used is accurate enough for the purpose it is being used for. A risk manager can expect to spend a good part of his or her team's time in cleansing data. While he or she can try to get the IT processes and systems to produce correct data in the first place so it requires minimal subsequent cleansing or validation, this task is likely to remain a key part of a risk manager's role for quite some time in the future given the challenges nearly all organizations face in managing risk data.
Statement III is correct. There was not enough granular data available on the underlying components of some of the derivative debt securities whose markets dried up during the crisis that began in 2007. This was because investors became increasingly unsure of what the value of these securities, such as CDOs was, leading to market seizure and firesale prices.
Statement IV is not correct. There is no easy solution to the lack of enough historical data, which is used to create as well as test models, and construct stress scenarios. Analytical approaches are not a good enough substitute for real market data. During the recent crisis, many instruments had rather short histories and there was not enough data available, and risk managers and portfolio managers relied upon analytical approaches to value and price them. Many of the assumptions that underpinned these approaches were untested in the real world and turned out to be incorrect.
Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer and the rest are incorrect.
NEW QUESTION 38
Which of the following statements is true in relation to a normal mixture distribution:
I. Normal mixtures represent one possible solution to the problem of volatility clustering II. A normal mixture VaR will always be greater than that under the assumption of normally distributed returns III. Normal mixtures can be applied to situations where a number of different market scenarios with different probabilities can be expected
- A. III
- B. I and II
- C. I, II and III
- D. II and III
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Normal mixtures address fat or heavy tails, not volatility clustering. Therefore statement I is not correct.
Statement II is not correct. Where VaR is calculated at low levels of confidence, VaR based on normal mixtures may be lower than that under a normal assumption. This is no different than for other fat tailed distributions.
Statement III is correct. In situations where multiple market scenarios can unfold with a given probability, and each scenario is normal, we can express the result with a normal mixture where the underlying normal distributions have the probabilities of the different scenarios.
NEW QUESTION 39
Which of the following statements are correct?
I. A reliance upon conditional probabilities and a-priori views of probabilities is called the 'frequentist' view II. Knightian uncertainty refers to things that might happen but for which probabilities cannot be evaluated III. Risk mitigation and risk elimination are approaches to reacting to identified risks IV. Confidence accounting is a reference to the accounting frauds that were seen in the past decade as a reflection of failed governance processes
- A. All of the above
- B. I and IV
- C. II, III and IV
- D. II and III
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
In statistics, which is relevant to risk management, a distinction is often drawn between 'frequentists' and
'Bayesians'. Frequentists rely upon data to draw conclusions as to probabilities. Bayesians consider conditional probabilities, ie, take into account what things are already known, and inject sometimes subjective a-priori probabilities into the calculations. Statement I describes Bayesians, and not frequentists. In reality however, the difference is merely academic. Risk managers use whichever technique best applies to the given situation without making it about ideology.
The difference between 'Knightian uncertainty' and 'Risk' is similarly academic. Knightian uncertainty refers to risk that cannot be measured or calculated. 'Risk' on the other hand refers to things for which past data exists and calculations of exposure can be made. To give an example in the context of the financial world, the risk from a pandemic creating systemic failures from a failure of payment and settlement systems and the like is
'Knightian uncertainty', but the market risk from equity price movements can be modeled (albeit with limitations) and is calculable. Statement II is therefore correct.
Once a risk is identified, it can be mitigated, accepted, avoided or eliminated, or transferred by way of insurance. Therefore statement III is correct.
Confidence accounting is a conceptual idea that suggests that accounting statements make reference to ranges as opposed to point estimates in financial statements. For example, instead of saying that the pension obligation is $xx million, the company should say the pension obligation is in a range of $xx m - $yy m with a certain confidence level. Statement IV is therefore inaccurate.
NEW QUESTION 40
Which of the following statements are true ?
I. Risk governance structures distribute rights and responsibilities among stakeholders in the corporation II. Cybernetics is the multidisciplinary study of cyber risk and control systems underlying information systems in an organization III. Corporate governance is a subset of the larger subject of risk governance IV. The Cadbury report was issued in the early 90s and was one of the early frameworks for corporate governance
- A. I, II and IV
- B. All of the above
- C. I and IV
- D. II and III
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Governance structures specify the policies, principles and procedures for making decisions about corporate direction. They distribute rights and responsibiliies among stakeholders that typically include executive management, employees, the board etc. Statement I is therefore correct.
"Cybernetics is a transdisciplinary approach for exploring regulatory systems, their structures, constraints, and possibilities. In the 21st century, the term is often used in a rather loose way to imply "control of any system using technology" (Wikipedia). Governance literature has been affected by cybernetics, which is not the same thing as information security or cyber security. Statement II is incorrect.
Corporate governance includes risk governance, and not the other way round. Therefore statement III is incorrect.
The Cadbury Report, titled Financial Aspects of Corporate Governance, was a report issued in the UK in December 1992 by "The Committee on the Financial Aspects of Corporate Governance". The report is eponymous with the chair of the committee, and set out recommendations on the arrangement of company boards and accounting systems to mitigate corporate governance risks and failures. Statement IV is therefore correct.
NEW QUESTION 41
Which of the following statements is true:
I. Basel II requires banks to conduct stress testing in respect of their credit exposures in addition to stress testing for market risk exposures II. Basel II requires pooled probabilities of default (and not individual PDs for each exposure) to be used for credit risk capital calculations
- A. I
- B. Neither statement is true
- C. I & II
- D. II
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is choice 'b'
Both statements are accurate. Basel II requires pooled probabilities of default to be applied to risk buckets that contain similar exposures. Also, stress testing is mandatory for both market and credit risk.
NEW QUESTION 42
What ensures that firms are not able to selectively default on some obligations without being considered in default on the others?
- A. Cross-default clauses in debt covenants
- B. Chapter 11 regulations
- C. Exchange listing requirements
- D. The bankruptcy code
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
It is the cross-default clauses in debt agreements that generally provide that a default on one obligation is considered a credit event applying to all debts of the obligor, and therefore we are able to deal with credit risk at the borrower level, and not at the level of the individual security. It also helps avoid situations where borrowers can selectively default on some obligations while continuing to service others. Therefore Choice 'a' is the correct answer. The other choices are incorrect.
NEW QUESTION 43
Under the ISDA MA, which of the following terms best describes the netting applied upon the bankruptcy of a party?
- A. Multilateral netting
- B. Payment netting
- C. Closeout netting
- D. Chapter 11
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Netting is the ability to set just the net balances when amounts are both owed and due. Netting can take many forms. Payment netting is netting between counterparties that owe moneys to each other in the same currency under the same transaction (or master agreement). Closeout netting is when parties settle a net amount for the value of all outstanding transactions upon the occurrence of an event of default such as bankruptcy. Multiateral netting involves a third party that sets off exposures across counterparties that owe moneys to each other.
Closeout netting under the ISDA master agreement enables a party to terminate transactions early if an Event of Default or Termination Event occurs in respect of the other party. It involves the calculation and netting of the termination values of all transactions to produce a single amount payable between the parties. Closeout netting is therefore the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION 44
......
Exam Passing Guarantee 8008 Exam with Accurate Quastions: https://www.dumpsactual.com/8008-actualtests-dumps.html
